AW: [FWP] japhy had a silly idea...

["Pense, Joachim" <joachim.pense@eds.com>]

Daniel S.Wilkerson wrote:
>Bernie Cosell wrote:
>
>> > .. And since there is an obvious,
>> > 1-to-1 mapping between the set of reals between 0 and 1 and the set of
...
>Therefore, R1 and S have the same cardinality.  By the
Schroeder-Cantor-Bernstein
>theorem
>(http://www.math.lsa.umich.edu/~mathsch/courses/Infinity/Cardinality/Lesson
4.shtml),
>there is a 1-1 onto map between R1 and S.  (Perhaps I could be accused of

The objective of the sub-discussion is not the existence of an 1-1 mapping
between the two sets, but the presentation of an "obvious" one.

Joachim

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