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AW: [FWP] japhy had a silly idea...



andrew wrote:

>On Tue, May 29, 2001 at 05:48:00AM +0100, Pense, Joachim wrote:
>> Daniel S.Wilkerson wrote:
>> >Therefore, R1 and S have the same cardinality.  By the
>> Schroeder-Cantor-Bernstein
>> >theorem
>>
>(http://www.math.lsa.umich.edu/~mathsch/courses/Infinity/Cardinality/Lesson
>> 4.shtml),
>> >there is a 1-1 onto map between R1 and S.  (Perhaps I could be accused
of
>> 
>> The objective of the sub-discussion is not the existence of an 1-1
mapping
>> between the two sets, but the presentation of an "obvious" one.

>People have different ideas of obvious :-)

Is the proof of Schröder-Bernstein constructive? That is, do we know that we
can produce an example of a real 1-1 mapping at all, or do we just have the
existence?

Right now I consider it no fun to leave my office and look up my old set
theory books, and the link does not work for me either, perhaps one of you
just happens to know it...

Joachim

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